To whet your interest, here are a few lines from the author's concluding remarks.
The Exegesis has shown beyond doubt that James is very critical of faith alone and insists that works are necessary for salvation. This raises many problems. Has James departed from the Pauline and Protestant emphasis that salvation comes by faith alone? If this is so, should this have consequences for the canonical status of James? What does it say about theology and preaching as such if two authors at different times and in different situations can say things which are apparently contradictory?